eating fish on fridays during lent
I have been told that the eating fish on fridays
became a rule during the 10th century due to the
fishing industry banning together because the eating
of meat was taking away from their profits. Is this
true? How did it come to past? what were the real
circumstances, when did it happen? Is there any documented
evidence of this anywhere?
Thank you
QUESTION from Dawn Heinen Monday, March 12, 2001
Dawn Heinen
ANSWER by Mrs. Suzanne Fortin, B.A. on
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Dear Dawn, I have also heard of this rumour, although in the version I heard, it was in the late Middle Ages. Unfortunately, this involves issues relating to medieval economic history, and my knowledge in that area is somewhat deficient. I am skeptical of this hypothesis for a couple of reasons. First, meat-eating was a rarity. Only rich people could eat meat on a constant basis; the poor only ate meat, if ever, during feasts. So how could eating meat have affected the profits of fishermen? Secondly, what kind of clout would the fishing industry have to pressure the Vatican? In the later Middle Ages, it might make more sense when fishers discovered the Grand Banks of cod near Newfoundland, and the fishing became easy, but before that, it hardly makes sense to me. How many rich fishermen do you know? Thirdly, abstinence, that is, the foregoing of meat, was a practice known since the early days of the Church, and Christians have always comemorated Friday as the day the Lord died. The Didache, Tertullian and Clement of Alexandria make mention of it. Pope Nicholas I (858-867) made fasting from meat obligatory for the faithful. So there are alternative, more plausible explanations for the origin of Friday abstinence. Thank you for your question.
God Bless, |