Re: Sexual climax outside of marital act
A question about your response to Jimmy on May 15th...
What's the difference between a couple enjoying sexual play that doesn't lead to the intercourse or climax by the man, and masturbation?
I was looking at the Catechism... "By masturbation is to be understood the deliberate stimulation of the genital organs in order to derive sexual pleasure" and "sexual pleasure is sought outside of "the sexual relationship which is demanded by the moral order and in which the total meaning of mutual self-giving and human procreation in the context of true love is achieved.""
I would think that that would include a man stimulating his wife, and bringing her to climax, since it's deliberate and the sole intention is pleasure, and without mutual self-giving and procreation.
I know I'm probably wrong in there somewhere, and I figure I might as well ask you to correct me now, so I don't go giving wrong advice to someone later. Thanks! :)
QUESTION from Rosa on May 19, 2004
ANSWER by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM on May 23, 2004
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Dear Rosa: Mutual self-giving is present in sexual play between husband and wife. While there is such a thing as mutual masturbation, such activity is done for its own sake as an act of sexual desire alone, rather than a mutual self-giving of love. At least this is how I understand it. I wish Father Most was still alive. He is the one I talked to about some of these technical issues of moral theology.
God Bless, |