Divorce & response to prior post
Dear Bro. Ignatius,
Two things.
Second. I was curious about something I read that you posted earlier on divorce (I honestly forgot which thread; i've been meaning to post this for a while). It was in regards to the following scripture:
***Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery." *** (Matthew 19:8-9)
Thank you as always,
QUESTION from Jonathan on May 11, 2004
First, I wanted to thank you for what you said regarding a previous post about abortion: "Being pro-Choice IS to be pro abortion" - No one seems to understand this point; to not recognize someone under the law as human (i.e., not afford it the same right to life), is to not recognize someone as human - period. The references you listed were good reading.
You said that people often misunderstand this scripture - I was hoping you could reiterate this point for me. Not that I think this scripture gives anyone a license to divorce. but isn't this pretty clear cut that someone could, if their spouse cheated on them, divorce with a clear conscience?
Jonathan
ANSWER by Bro. Ignatius Mary, OLSM on May 12, 2004
|
Dear Jonathan: It appears that Jesus is giving permission for divorce for reasons of adultery, but if this was truly the case then he would be speaking with a forked tongue. God would be lying. Valid marriage cannot be terminated by anyone or anything. It does not matter if a spouse commits adultery 1000 times, IF the marriage is valid it is impossible for it to be terminated. This is the teaching of Jesus and the Church affirms that teaching. The passage in question "appears" to grant a reason for divorce, but appearance are not always accurate to the reality. The reality is that this passage affirms the teaching of the unity and indissolubility of marriage. That is the main theme. The short explanation is that the Greek word used for adultery, or the more accurate English translation is "unchastity," appears to refer to marriages that we not legal marriages, because they either were within the forbidden degrees of consanguinity (Lev 18:6-16) or contracted with a Gentile (mix marriage), or of pagan origin. (Note also that the phrase except on grounds of adultery/unchastity does not appear in the parallel passage in Luke 16:18). In other words Jesus is referring to marriages that are not valid and thus, in today's terminology must be annulled. The Council of Trent, De Sacrum. matr., can. 7, infallibly declared:
If anyone says that the Church is in error when she has taught and does teach according to the doctrine of the Gospels and Apostles that the marriage bond cannot be dissolved because of adultery on the part of either the husband or the wife; and that neither party, not even the innocent one who gave no cause for the adultery, can contract another marriage while the other is still living; and that adultery is committed both by the husband who dismisses adulterous wife and married again and by the wife who dismisses her adulterous husband and marries again: let them be anathema The reason for the misinterpretation comes from not considering the fact that the English does not properly render the accurate meaning, and a lack of understanding of the Jewish laws on marriage and of the sorts of situations Jesus was referring to.
God Bless, |